Baseline normalization between two data groups

EEG
#1

Hi Mike,

First of all, I have to thank you for the amazing content you have provided us on udemy. I’ve been enjoying it thoroughly and because of it, I currently have a paper in the publishing process.

My question regards the baseline normalization of the time-frequency plots on my current research project. I’m doing a time-frequency analysis comparing a group of people with the diagnosis of schizophrenia (SZ) to a group of healthy controls (HC) where each participant was subjected to 3 experimental conditions.

Now, I understand the motivation for averaging the baseline of all 3 conditions, but should I do it for every different individual and then average all the resulting baselines for each group (SZ vs. HC) separately? Should I even have a different baseline for each group?

Best regards,

Miguel Rocha

#2

Hi Miguel. Nice to hear, and congrats on your paper!

The baseline is for each individual. So, each person gets their own baseline, regardless of which group they’re in. And you wouldn’t average the baselines across individuals within (or across) groups.

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